IBPS PO/MT BANK EXAM PREPARATION TIPS - 2011

IBPS BANK EXAM  TIPS 2011

Tips to follow for ibps bank exam 2011

1. Use shortcut tricks while  answering the questions.

2. Try to reduce using of formulas.

3. Don’t attempt all questions in any section.

4. If you don’t know the answer for particular problem, simply leave it to save the time.

5. In English section,answer the questions fastly(ex: in particular question he asked synomyn for the word,by seeing the 4 options,1 option will be blink in your mind, finalised it and tick that answer, really you don't know the answer for that question, then by thinking about it, will be waste of your time and it will not possible to get the answer by thinking in english section)

6. Reasoning section will be take more time, so try to answer for some(for qualifying) questions only in this section.

7. Don’t start your exam with aptitude and reasoning sections

8. Time splitting for each section

General awareness:            15 min

Computer knowledge:        15 min

English:                               25 min

Reasoning:                          45 min

Quantitative aptitude:          50 min

Ibps bank exam 2011 for PO’s, will be conduct on 18th of October, while writing the exam,you need to follow some tips and tricks. Many students are not getting the jobs in banks,because of section cut-off. Some students, good at aptitude but not in English, then he will be rejected from the short list, so for you need to prepare for all sections, then only its possible to get your dream job in 19 banks. And also don't attempt all questions in any section, which affects your final score and as well as time waste. If you attempt all questions in any section, the other sections time will be waste and negative marks also considerable, so be carefull while writing the exam.

Punjab National Bank PNB Exam Solved Paper

Marketing and Computer Knowledge
(Exam Held on: 4-4-2010)

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
1. Marketing function includes—
(A) Designing new products
(B) Advertisements
(C) Publicity
(D) After sales service
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
2. Lead generation can be resorted to
by browsing—
(A) Telephone directories
(B) Yellow pages
(C) Internet sites
(D) List of existing customers
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
3. Effective selling skills depend on—
(A) Effective lead generation
(B) Sales Call Planning
(C) Territory Allocation
(D) Effective communication skills
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
4. Market Information means—
(A) Knowledge level of marketing staff
(B) Information about marketing staff
(C) Information regarding Share market
(D) Knowledge of related markets
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)
5. Marketing channels mean—
(A) Delivery period
(B) Delivery time
(C) Delivery outlets
(D) Delivery place
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

6. ‘Buyer Resistance’ means—
(A) Buyer’s interest in the product being sold
(B) Buyer fighting with the seller
(C) Buyer’s hesitation in buying the product
(D) Buyer becoming a seller
(E) Buyer buying the product
Ans : (C)
7. Marketing is the function of—
(A) Sales persons
(B) Production Department
(C) Planning Department
(D) Team leaders
(E) A collective function of all staff
Ans : (E)
8. A DSA means—
(A) Direct Service Agency
(B) Direct Selling Agent
(C) Double Selling Agent
(D) Distribution Agency
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. Service Marketing is resorted to in—
(A) All manufacturing companies
(B) All production houses
(C) Export units
(D) Insurance companies and banks
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)
10. Marketing is—
(A) A skilled person’s job
(B) A one day function
(C) A one time act
(D) Required only when a new product is launched
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
11. Market share refers to—
(A) Share market prices
(B) Price fluctuation in the market
(C) Share issue floated by the company
(D) Share of wallet
(E) Share of business of the company
as compared to peers
Ans : (E)
12. Service Marketing is the same as—
(A) Internet marketing
(B) Telemarketing
(C) Internal Marketing
(D) Relationship Marketing
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)
13. Current Accounts can be freely opened by ………… Find the incorrect answer.
(A) All NRIs
(B) All businessmen
(C) Government departments
(D) Firms and Companies
(E) HUFs
Ans : (E)
14. Buyer Resistance can be overcome by—
(A) Cordial relation between buyer and
seller
(B) Good negotiation
(C) Persuasive communication
(D) Good after sales service
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)
15. Cross-selling is useful for canvassing—
(A) Current Accounts
(B) Fixed Deposit Accounts
(C) Student loans
(D) Car loans
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
16. Market segmentation helps to
determine—
(A) Target groups
(B) Sale price
(C) Profit levels
(D) Product life cycle
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)
17. The target group for Car loans is—
(A) Auto manufacturing companies
(B) Car dealers
(C) Taxi drivers
(D) Car purchasers
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
18. The best promotional tool in any marketing is—
(A) e-promotion
(B) Public Relations
(C) Viral marketing
(D) Word of mouth publicity
(E) Advertisements
Ans : (E)
19. Customisation results in—
(A) Customer exodus
(B) Customer retention
(C) Customer complaints
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
20. The target group for Education Loans is—
(A) All parents
(B) All Professors
(C) All Research Scholars
(D) All Tutorial Colleges
(E) All College Students
Ans : (E)
21. Find the correct sentence.
(A) Higher the price, higher are the sales
(B) More sales persons lead to more sales
(C) Mission statement is part of a Market Plan
(D) Better sales incentives means better performance
(E) All customers are profitable customers
Ans : (C)
22. Good marketing strategy envisages good and proper—
(A) Product development
(B) Promotion and Distribution
(C) Pricing
(D) Relationship management
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
23. Savings Accounts can be opened by—
(A) All individuals fulfilling KYC norms
(B) All individuals earning more than Rs. 1,00,000 per annum
(C) All individuals above the age of 18
(D) All salaried persons only
(E) All students below the age of 18
Ans : (C)
24. Situation Analysis is useful for—
(A) SWOT Analysis
(B) Analysis of Sales person’s performances
(C) Analysis of capital markets
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. Information that comes from an external source and fed into computer software is called—
(A) Input
(B) Output
(C) Throughput
(D) Reports
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
26. With a CD you can—
(A) Read
(B) Write
(C) Neither Read nor Write
(D) Both Read and Write
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
27. Errors in a computer program are referred to as—
(A) bugs
(B) mistakes
(C) item overlooked
(D) blunders
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. Which of the following are computers that can be carried around easily ?
(A) Laptops
(B) Supercomputers
(C) PCs
(D) Minicomputers
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
29. What menu is selected to change font and style ?
(A) Tools
(B) File
(C) Format
(D) Edit
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
30. Where is the disk put in a computer?
(A) In the hard drive
(B) In the disk drive
(C) Into the CPU
(D) In the modem
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. A computer’s hard disk is—
(A) an arithmetic and logical unit
(B) computer software
(C) operating system
(D) computer hardware
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
32. A compiler is used to translate a program written in—
(A) a low level language
(B) a high level language
(C) assembly language
(D) machine language
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
33. In programming, you use the following keys—
(A) Arrow keys
(B) Function keys
(C) Alpha keys
(D) page up and Page Down keys
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
34. Which keys enable the input of numbers quickly ?
(A) Function keys
(B) The numeric keypad
(C) Ctrl, shift and alt
(D) Arrow keys
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
35. Files are organized by storing them in—
(A) tables
(B) databases
(C) folders
(D) graphs
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
36. The secret code that restricts entry to some programs—
(A) entry-code
(B) passport
(C) password
(D) access-code
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
37. Advertisements are not required in—
(A) Public Sector banks
(B) Private Sector banks
(C) Government concerns
(D) Profit making companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
38. The most common method of entering text and numerical data into a computer system is through the use of a—
(A) plotter
(B) scanner
(C) printer
(D) keyboard
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
39. Computer programs are also known as—
(A) operating systems
(B) documents
(C) peripherals
(D) applications
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
40. A collection of unprocessed items is ………
(A) information
(B) data
(C) memory
(D) reports
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
41. ……… is when the more powerhungry components, such as the monitor and the hard drive, are put in
idle.
(A) Hibernation
(B) Power down
(C) Standby mode
(D) The shutdown procedure
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
42. ……… is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.
(A) Tracking
(B) Formatting
(C) Crashing
(D) Allotting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
43. A saved document is referred to as a ………
(A) file
(B) word
(C) folder
(D) project
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
44. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage ?
(A) GB
(B) KB
(C) MB
(D) TB
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
45. The operating system is the most common type of ……… software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
46. A ……… is approximately one billion bytes.
(A) kilobyte
(B) bit
(C) gigabyte
(D) megabyte
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
47. A scanner scans—
(A) Pictures
(B) Text
(C) Both Pictures and Text
(D) Neither Pictures nor Text
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
48. Dumb terminals have terminals and—
(A) Mouse
(B) Speakers
(C) Keyboard
(D) Mouse or Speakers
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
49. The portion of the CPU that coordinates the activities of all the other computer components is the—
(A) motherboard
(B) coordination board
(C) control unit
(D) arithmetic logic unit
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
50. A repair for a known software bug, usually available at no charge on the Internet, is called a(n)—
(A) version
(B) patch
(C) tutorial
(D) FAQ
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Corporation Bank Probationary Officers Exam. - 2011

English Language 

(Exam Held on 16-1-2011)

Directions—(Q. 1 to 5) Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
(1) “What is waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay.
(2) “Speak to her”, he said, “She's into books”.
(3) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticing her.
(4) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a “Gallo drinking appreciation event”.
(5) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him.

1. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)


4. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

5. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 6 to15) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came …(6)… effect in April this year, is meant to transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic session just …(7)… the corner, it is fast becoming clear that …(8)… well-intentioned ideas into …(9)… will take some doing. For a start, the guidelines for admissions under the RTE prohibit schools from conducting any sort of student profiling. The stress on a random yet justifiable admission process means that schools will have to resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving admission to a good school to pure …(10)… will only incentives manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE.

The main problem facing the education sector is that of a resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal access to education are all very well, …(11)… we have the infrastructure in place first. Brick and mortar schools need to precede open admission and not the …(12)… way around. In that sense, legislators' assessment of ground realities is …(13)… target when they endorse the closure of tens of thousands of lowcost private schools for not meeting the minimum standards of land plot, building specifications and playground area as laid out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing down …(14)… on private schools for failing to conform to abstract bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal education should focus on upgrading and expanding the existing government school infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then can we ensure the much-needed supply-demand …(15)… in the education sector.

6. (A) with
(B) for
(C) on
(D) into
(E) in
Ans : (D)

7. (A) around
(B) near
(C) into
(D) about
(E) reaching
Ans : (A)

8. (A) forming
(B) translating
(C) having
(D) taking
(E) framing
Ans : (B)

9. (A) affect
(B) ideas
(C) practice
(D) concept
(E) procedure
Ans : (C)

10. (A) benefit
(B) merit
(C) chance
(D) basis
(E) method
Ans : (C)

11. (A) unless
(B) until
(C) executed
(D) provided
(E) exercised
Ans : (D)

12. (A) other
(B) any
(C) two
(D) differ
(E) after
Ans : (A)

13. (A) on
(B) of
(C) often
(D) taken
(E) off
Ans : (E)

14. (A) soft
(B) more
(C) less
(D) only
(E) hard
Ans : (D)

15. (A) need
(B) equilibrium
(C) expectation
(D) attempt
(E) aspects
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16 to 25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. The President has denied (A) / that the economy is in recession (B) / or was go into one (C) / despite a spate of downcast reports. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

17. The angry at being (A) / left out of the bonanza (B) / is palpable among (C) / employees of the organization. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

18. His comments came after (A) / the research group said that its (B) / consumer confidence index were (C) / slumped to its lowest level. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

19. If all goes well, (A) / the examination scheduled for next month (B) / is all set to be completely free (C) / from annoying power cuts and disruptions. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

20. There are just too few trains (A) / for the ever-grow (B) / number of passengers (C) / in the city. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

21. The buzz at the party was (A) / that a famous (B) / filmstar and politician, would (C) / probable drop by for a while. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

22. The Opposition disrupted proceedings (A) / in both Houses of Parliament (B) / for the second consecutive day (C) / above the plight of farmers in the country. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

23. In response to the growing crisis, (A) / the agency is urgently asking for (B) / more contributions, to make up for (C) / its sharp decline in purchasing power. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

24. The tennis player easy through (A) / the opening set before her opponent, (B) / rallied to take the final two sets (C) / for the biggest victory of her young career. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

25. Aggression in some teenage boys (A) / may be linkage to overly (B) / large glands in their brains, (C) / a new study has found. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 26 to 35) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

A new analysis has determined that the threat of global warming can still be greatly diminished if nations cut emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases by 70% this century. The analysis was done by scientists at the National Centre for Atmospheric Research (NCAR). While global temperatures would rise, the most dangerous potential aspects of climate change, including massive losses of Arctic sea ice and permafrost and significant sea-level rise, could be partially avoided.

“This research indicates that we can no longer avoid significant warming during this century,” said NCAR scientist Warren Washington, the study paper's lead author, “But, if the world were to implement this level of emission cuts, we could stabilize the threat of climate change”, he added." Average global temperatures have warmed by close to 1 degree Celsius since the pre-industrial era. Much of the warming is due to human-produced emissions of greenhouse gases, predominantly carbon dioxide. This heat-trapping gas has increased from a pre-industrial level of about 284 parts per million (ppm) in the atmosphere to more than 380 ppm today. With research showing that additional warming of about 1 degree C may be the threshold for dangerous climate change, the European Union has called for dramatic cuts in emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.

To examine the impact of such cuts on the world's climate, Washington and his colleagues ran a series of global studies with the NCAR - based Community Climate System Model (CCSM). They assumed that carbon dioxide levels could be held to 450 ppm at the end of this century. In contrast, emissions are now on track to reach about 750 ppm by 2100 if unchecked. The team's results showed that if carbon dioxide were held to 450 ppm, global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celsius above current readings by the end of the century. In contrast, the study showed that temperatures would rise by almost four times that amount, to 2.2 degrees Celsius above current readings, if emissions were allowed to continue on their present course. Holding carbon dioxide levels to 450 ppm would have other impacts, according to the climate modelling study.

Sea-level rise due to thermal expansion as water temperatures warmed would be 14 centimetres (about 5.5 inches) instead of 22 centimetres (8.7 inches). also, Arctic ice in the summertime would shrink by about a quarter in volume and stabilize by 2100, as opposed to shrinking at least three-quarters and continuing to melt, and Arctic warming would be reduced by almost half.

26. Why has the European Union called for dramatic cuts in carbon dioxide and greenhouse gas emissions ?
(A) As global warming is not an issue of concern
(B) As the temperatures may rise almost by an additional one degree and this may lead to severe climate change
(C) As the NCAR has forced the European Union to announce the cuts
(D) As all the nations have decided to cut emissions of carbon dioxide
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. What would not be one of the impacts of cutting greenhouse gas emissions ?
(A) Temperatures will stop soaring
(B) Ice in the Arctic sea would melt at a slower pace
(C) The rise in sea level would be lesser
(D) All of the above would be the impact
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

28. What would be the impact of unchecked greenhouse gas and carbon dioxide emissions ?
(A) The temperature would rise from the current temperature by 2.2 degrees Celsius
(B) The sea-level would rise by about 5.5 inches
(C) The arctic ice would stabilize by 2100
(D) The arctic ice would reduce by one-fourth
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

29. What can be the most appropriate title of the above passage ?
(A) A study of the rise in water level
(B) A study of rise in temperatures
(C) A study of the effects of greenhouse gas emissions
(D) A study of the Arctic region
(E) A study of change in seasons
Ans : (C)

30. Which of the following statements is true in context of the passage ?
(A) At present the carbon dioxide emission is about 284 ppm
(B) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 450 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked
(C) The carbon dioxide emission was about 380 ppm during the pre-industrial era
(D) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 750 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

31. What does the scientist Warren Washington mean when he says “we could stabilize the threat of climate change” ?
(A) Climate change can be stopped completely
(B) Climate change can be regularized
(C) Climate change and its effects can be studied extensively
(D) The ill-effects of the change in climate can be minimized
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

32. Why did Washington and his colleagues conduct a series of studies ?
(A) Because they realized that the temperature increase was almost about 1 degree
(B) So that they could stabilize the climate change
(C) So that they could help the European Union in cutting the carbon dioxide emissions
(D) Because they found out that the greenhouse gas emissions could be cut by 70%
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. What would be the impact of holding the carbon dioxide level at 450 ppm at end of this century ?
(1) Global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celsius.
(2) Arctic warming would be reduced by half.
(3) Thermal expansion will stop completely.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) All the three (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 34 to 37) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage—

34. DRAMATIC
(A) unprecedented
(B) thrilling
(C) spectacular
(D) effective
(E) feeble
Ans : (D)

35. SHRINK
(A) contract
(B) physician
(C) wither
(D) shrivel
(E) reduce
Ans : (E)

36. PREDOMINANTLY (A) clearly
(B) aggressively
(C) mainly
(D) firstly
(E) faintly
Ans : (C)

37. MASSIVE
(A) tall
(B) tough
(C) total
(D) little
(E) severe
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 38 to 40) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

38. SIGNIFICANT
(A) substantial
(B) miniscule
(C) incoherent
(D) unimportant
(E) irrelevant
Ans : (D)

39. OPPOSED
(A) resistant
(B) against
(C) favouring
(D) similar
(E) agree
Ans : (D)

40. DIMINISHED
(A) created
(B) rose
(C) increased
(D) lessen
(E) finished
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41 to 45) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correc tion is required, mark (E) as the answer.

41. Although scared of heights, she gather all her courage and stood a top the 24-storey building to participate in the activities.
(A) gathered all her courage
(B) gathered all courageous
(C) gather all courageous
(D) is gathered all courage
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

42. Naturally, with everything gone so well for them, it was time for celebration.
(A) go so well
(B) going so well
(C) gone as well
(D) going as well
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

43. The ban was imposed by the state's commercial taxes department last Friday after protests by a certain community, which had threat to burn cinema halls screening the controversial movie.
(A) had threats of burning
(B) had threated to burn
(C) had threatened to burn
(D) had threatened to burning
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

44. Rakesh, an avid football player who captained his team in school and college, will inaugurate the match tomorrow in Pune.
(A) will be inaugurate
(B) is inauguration
(C) will inaugurating
(D) is inaugurate
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

45. At a musical night organized for them, the artistic side of the doctors came as forward, as they sang beautifully and made the evening truly memorable.
(A) come forward
(B) come to the fore
(C) came to the forth
(D) came to the fore
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 46 to 50) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

46. Behaving in a …… and serious way, even in a …… situation, makes people respect you.
(A) calm, difficult
(B) steady, angry
(C) flamboyant, tricky
(D) cool, astounding
(E) silly, sound
Ans : (A)

47. Alongwith a sharp rise in ……, a recession would eventually result in more men, women, and children, living in ……
(A) crime, apathy
(B) fatalities, poor
(C) deaths, slums
(D) unemployment, poverty
(E) migrations, streets
Ans : (D)

48. The government has …… to provide financial aid to the ones …… by severe floods in the city.
(A) desired, troubled
(B) promised, havoc
(C) failed, affected
(D) wanted, struck
(E) decided, ill
Ans : (C)

49. An airplane with …… passengers on board made an unscheduled …… as the airport to which it was heading was covered with thick fog.
(A) irritable, slip
(B) faulty, stop
(C) variety, halt
(D) tons, wait
(E) numerous, landing
Ans : (C)

50. Deemed universities …… huge fees, but have not been successful in providing …… education to our students.
(A) collect, maintaining
(B) pay, better
(C) ask, good
(D) charge, quality
(E) demand, quantitative
Ans : (D)

IBPS PO/MT Common Written Examination Sample Paper -2011

GENERAL AWARENESS

1. Which period is called the 'banking swadeshi' period when many Indians established many banks?
1)1870-1940
2)1910-1947
3)1906-1911
4)1947-1991
5)1942-1947

2. The banks established in Swadeshi period are ............?
1) Bank of India
2) Corporation bank
3) Indian Bank
4) Bank of Baroda
5) All of the above

3. In which part of India, many banks are established, which is called the 'Cradle of Indian Banking System'?
1) Northern Assam
2) Southern Tamilnadu
3) Eastern Rajasthan
4) Southern Karnataka
5) Western Maharastra

4. The most banks in India failed between ............ Not less than 100 banks failed due to various reasons?
1) 1923-1928
2) 1953-1958
3) 1923-1948
4) 1903-1928
5) 1913-1918

5. Which party issued a paper by name 'Stray thoughts on Bank Nationalization' signaling the nationalization of banks in India?
1) Communist Party of India
2) Janatha Party
3) Congress Party
4) Republican Party
5) National Conference

6. Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertaking) Bill passed in ...............paving way to the nationalization of banks in India?
1) 1974
2) 1969
3) 1975
4) 1981
5) 1961



7. Who said the nationalization of banks is the 'masterstroke of political sagacity'?
1) Indira Gandhi
2) Raj Narayan
3) Jayaprakash Narayan
4) Jawahar Lal Nehru
5) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

8. How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
1) 18
2) 6
3) 14
4) 20
5) 5

9. Which bank was not nationalized in 1969?
1) Allahabad Bank
2) Bank of Baroda
3) State Bank of India
4) Bank of India
5) Bank of Maharastra

10. How many banks were nationalized as a  second dose in 1980?
1) 4
2) 9
3) 6
4) 18
5) 12

11. Bad debts mean ............?
1) amounts owed to a company that are going to be paid
2) amounts owed to a company that are not going to be paid
3) amounts owed to a company that are going to be paid within 2 years
4) amounts owed to a company that are not going to be paid within 8 years
5) None

12. GST council (Goods and Services Taxes Council) in the Constitution 115th Amendment Bill headed by ............ to make recommendations the taxes to be levied, goods to be exempted, GST rate etc?
1) Prime Minister
2) Finance Minister
3) Commerce Minister
4) Revenue Minister
5) Finance Secretary

13. The current limit of External borrowings is $ 20 billion. This Current limit is now raised to $ ............ billion?
1) 21
2) 40
3) 70
4) 60
5) 30

14. ............is not the provision of the National Land Acquisition and Rehabilitation & Resettlement Bill?
1) In the given area, least 80% of the population must agree to acquisition of land by the government.
2) Land owners to be compensated with twice the registered or stamp value of the land in urban areas and six times in rural areas.
3) Single law has the provisions of Acquisition of land and rehabilitation
4) The government can appoint middle man to have talks with the local population to decrease the compensation
5) Compensation reflects the market rates

15. Food Security Bill proposed by National Advisory Council (NAC) proposes 90% ration in Rural Areas and ............% ration in Urban Areas. (National Advisory Council headed by Sonia Gandhi)
1) 50
2) 70
3) 100
4) 90
5) 25

16. The Union government decisions are given. Pick the correct one?
1) National Legal Aid and Reforms commiscommission coming soon
2) Supreme Court ordered the return of 156 hectares of land to farmers in Uttar Pradesh, allocated to construct posh buildings.
3) The postal department issues postal stamps on President of India's house Rastrapathi Bhavan
4) Five PIO ( Person of India Origin) universities will be set up in the future.
5) All of above

17. Project 'Surakhya' an Infant and Young Child Feeding (IYCF) introduced by ............?
1) Odisha
2) Chattisgarh
3) Arunachal Pradesh
4) Madhya Pradesh
5) Goa

18. 'Nanhe Haath Kalam Ke Saath' ( tiny hands with pen) phase II announced against the social evil of Child Labour by ............?
1) Karnataka
2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Uttar Pradesh
4) Rajasthan
5) Goa

19. SAARC Interior Ministers conference was recently held in ............?
1) Sri Lanka
2) India
3) Afganistan
4) Bhutan
5) Nepal

20. Mahatma Gandhi led .............listed in the top ten of the most influential protests in the world as mentioned by 'Time magazine'?
1) Non-cooperation Movement
2) Swadeshi Movement
3) Salt Satyagraha
4) Quit India Movement
5) Champaran Satyagraha

21. A person who expects share prices in general to decline and who is likely to indulge in SHORT SALES is called ............?
1) Bear
2) Bull
3) Dog
4) Duck
5) Lame Duck

22. ............ was re elected as the UN Secretary General?
1) Irina Bocova
2) Robert Zollick
3) Ban Ki-moon
4) Hillay Clinton
5) Christine Legarde

23. Meghdoot awards conferred by ............?
1) Air India
2) Department of Water Resources
3) Postal Department
4) Department of Communications
5) Supreme Court

24. 'Areva' a French company belongs to following sector?
1) Nuclear
2) Toy
3) Auto makers
4) Mobiles
5) Book

25. In the list of nationalized banks, which bank was merged with Punjab National Bank in 1993?
1) Bank of India
2) Bank of Baroda
3) Andhra Bank
4) New Bank of India
5) Central Bank of India

26. ............was the prime minister of India during the nationalization of banks in 1969 and in 1980?
1) Jawahar Lal Nehru
2) Lal Bahadur Sastri
3) Indira Gandhi
4) Morarji Desaii
5) P.V.Narasimha Rao

27. Who among the following is not the present Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India?
1) K.C.Chakravarthy
2) Subhir Gokarn
3) Y.Malegam
4) Anand Sinha
5) H. R.khan

28. On 3 August 2011, ........... panel submitted its report to Reserve Bank of India on 'customer service in banks'
1) Rangarajan
2) Malegam
3) Subba Rao
4) H.R.Khan
5) Damodaran

29. ............firmly tell many rules and regulations relating to Non-Performing Assets?
1) Banking Regulation Act 1949
2) Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999
3) SEBI Act 1992
4) Indian Contract Act 1872
5) Negotiable instrument act 1881

30. On 30 June 2011 ............liberalized FDI norms by allowing the Indian companies to pay in the form of Equity in to the foreign suppliers instead of payment in the form of foreign exchange?
1) SEBI
2) Ministry of Finance
3) Ministry of Commerce
4) FDA
5) RBI

31. ............tied up with Met Life to enter in to insurance business recently?
1) Andhra Bank
2) Union Bank of India
3) Corporation bank
4) Allahabad Bank
5) Punjab National Bank

32. ............started, the saga of Liberlization of banks as a prime minister?
1) Indira Gandhi
2) Nehru
3) Lal Bahadur Sastri
4) P.V.Narasimha Rao
5) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

33. Which committee suggested the banking reforms?
1) Kalia
2) Deepak Mohanty
3) Narasimham
4) Syamala Gopinath
5) Goparia

34. The decade 1990-2000 is the era of Techsavvy private banks. Which are established during this period?
1) Global Trust Bank
2) UTI bank
3) ICICI
4) HDFC
5) All of above

35. Global Trust Bank was merged with ........?
1) HDFC
2) Oriental Bank of Commerce
3) State Bank of India
4) Syndicate Bank
5) IDBI

36. ............was merged with HDFC bank?
1) Bank of Rajasthan
2) Global Trust Bank
3) Centurion Bank
4) Bank of Bombay
5) Imperial Bank of India

37. ............has offered to India a loan of Rs.6,800 crore for building 24,000 km of all weather roads in the rural seven economically poor and hilly areas States
1) IMF
2) IFC
3) World Bank
4) IDA
5) ADB

38. India's first indigenous payment gateway is ............?
1) India Expenditure
2) India Payment
3) India Challan
4) India Pay
5) India Rupee

39. ............opened a Lockless branch at Shani Shingnapur (Maharastra) respecting the local customs?
1) State Bank of India
2) Bank of Maharastra
3) Union Bank of India 4) ICICI
5) UCO bank

40. ............and Life Insurance Corporation of India( LIC) tie up to launch Credit-Card services to the customers and employees of LIC?
1) Axis Bank
2) ICICI
3) State Bank of India
4) HDFC
5) Kotak Mahendra Bank

41. Tehri Hydro Development Corporation got $ 648 million from ............?
1) IMF
2) IDA
3) ADB
4) AFD
5) IBRD

42. On 10 August 2011, in which state National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) proposed to give huge loans in the endosulfan-hit areas?
1) Odisha
2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Uttar Pradesh
4) West Bengal
5) Kerala

43. The best alternative banking service to branch banking to be the part of Financial Inclusion?
1) Establishment of small branches
2) Setup ATMs
3) Issuing of ATM cards
4) Giving Credit Cards
5) Mobile banking

44. Giving focused attention to integrated development of infrastructure in selected cities is the main theme of ............scheme?
1) PURA
2) JNNURM
3) MGNREGA
4) IAY
5) RAY

45. ...........became first state to sign an agreement on Emission Reduction Purchase with the World Bank to curb the carbon emissions?
1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Himachal Pradesh
3) Haryana
4) Goa
5) Maharashtra

46. MENA (Middle East and North Africa) region is the familiar for ............ industry?
1) Toy
2) Leather
3) Petroleum
4) Cotton
5) Fruits

47. The Award list given. Pick the correct one?
1) 12th IIFA (International Indian Film Academy) top awards announced in Toranto
2) Life Achievement Award got by Asha Bhonsle
3) Best film award got by Dabangg
4) Best Actor Award got by Shahrukh Khan
5) All of above

48. Guido Mantega used the word 'Currency War' referring ............?
1) India
2) China
3) New Zeland
4) Russia
5) USA

ANSWERS
1)3 2)5 3)4 4)5 5)3 6)2 7)3 8)3 9)3 10)3
11)2 12)2 13)5 14)4 15)1 16)5 17)1 18)4
19)4 20)3 21)1 22)3 23)3 24)1 25)4 26)3
27)3 28)5 29)1 30)5 31)5 32)4 33)3 34)5
35)2 36)3 37)3 38)4 39)5 40)1 41)5 42)5
43)5 44)2 45)2 46)3 47)5 48)2.

SBI Associate Bank PO Exam Solved Paper 2011

GENERAL AWARENESS

 

(EXAM HELD ON:  07-08-2011)

1. The International World Wide Web Conference 2011 was held at
a) Italy
b) Manila
c) Geneva
d) Newyork
e) Hyderabad

2.Which of the following countries is NOT associated with the proposed TAPI gas pipeline?
a) India
b) Pakistan
c) Portugal
d) Afghanistan
e) Turkmenistan

3. Bhagyam oilfields are located in which of following states?
a) Rajasthan
b) Gujarat
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Maharashtra
e) Karanatka

4. The Central Government has approved Rs 7000 crore Project to clean which of the following rivers?
a) Narmada
b) Ganga
c) Mahanadi
d) Kaveri
e) Godavari

5. Recently a controversy rages over new land acquisition policy in which of following states?
a) Maharashtra
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Gujarat
d) Madhya Pradesh
e) West Begal

6.BP Plc, a well known company is engaged in which one of the following as its major operations?
a) Nuclear Power Generation
b) Oil and Gas Exploration
c) Wind power generation
d) Steel production
e) Coal production

7. As per statement given by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee in medias, the main cause of
increased inflation rate is the recent hike in prices of ______.
a) daily commodities
b) petroleum products--ans
c) infrastructure materials
d) imported goods
e) None of the above

8. The System Software is used to
a) diagonose and troubleshooting the attached device
b) create graphics images
c) draw the picture on paper
d) manage the available internal resources
e) None of these

9. One billionth of a second is
a) gigabyte
b) nanosecond
c) terabyte
d) megabyte
e) None of these

10. A technology used to create, store, exchange and utilize information in its various forms including business data, conversations, still images, motion pictures and multimedia presentations is called
a) website
b) information technology
c) internet chat
d) networking
e) None of these

11. A program which is used find spam data in the computer and capable to distroy is called
a) firewall
b) anti-spam program
c) adware remover
d) pop-up blocker
e) None of these

12. A chip placed on the electronic circuit board inside a system unit that hold temporarliy piece of information/data is called (containing the data being displayed on output device)
a) modem
b) scanner
c) memory
d) hard disk
e) None of these

13. A graphic or piece of text that links to another piece of information in a web page is
a) meta-tag
b) page connection
c) domain name
d) hyperlink
e) None of these

14. Which of the following computer programming languages is used to write applet programs which
can be integrate into a webpage?
a) Which of the following computer programming languages is used to write applet programs which
can be integrate into a webpage?
a) Java
b) PERL
c) C++
d) Pascal
e) FORTRAN
b) PERL
c) C++
d) Pascal
e) FORTRAN

15. Embedded operating systems are used in
a) desktop computers
b) mainframe computers
c) PDAs
d) network server computer
e) None of these

16. . A Web or part of a Web site, or part of an online service that provides a venue for communities of
users with a common interest to communicate in real time is called
a) user forum
b) blog
c) discussion forum
d) chat-group
e) None of these

17. The main electronic circuit board in the system unit is called
a) Circuit plate
b) Chassis
c) Motherboard
d) Processor
e) None of these

18. The System Unit consists of
a) all electronic components of the computer used to process data
b) all hardware and software
c) application programs
d) Mouse and keyboard
e) None of these

19. A portable computer called Laptop, having a weight about 1.4 to 4.5 kg is also known as
a) Desktop PC
b) Mainframe Computer
c) Personal Computer
d) Micro Computer
e) Notebook computer

20. if Reserve Bank of India hikes interest rates by 25 basis points in its monetary policy, then a commercial bank would like to increase it’s interest rates on loans by 25 basis points of
a) Prime Lending Rate
b) Repo rate
c) Base rate
d) Saving account interest rate
e) None of these

21. Which one of the following pairs of countries is associated with nuclear arms control treaty START?
a) US-China
b) China-Iran
c) US-Russia

d) US – Japan
e) None of these

22. The International World Wide Web Conference 2011 was held at …..
a) Italy
b) Manila
c) Geneva
d) Newyork
e) Hyderabad

23. Which of the following schemes is NOT launched by Ministry of Rural Development?
a) National Family Benefit Scheme
b) National Old Age Pension Scheme
c) Nationall Maternity Benefit Scheme
d) Mid Day Meal scheme
e) All the above are launched by Ministry of Rural Development

24. Who among the followings has been appointed as coach of Indian cricket team for next two years?
a) Gary Kirsten
b) John Buchanan
c) Andy Flower
d) Duncan Fletcher
e) None of the above

25. What does the letter ‘L’ stands for in the term LAF commonly used in financial/economic news?
a) Liquidity

b) Least
c) Liabilities
d) Longitudinal
e) Linear

26. FINO, a term used by media in financial newspapers and tv news channels is stands for
a) Financial Information Network & Operations
b) Financial Inclusion News & Operations
c) Financial Inclusion Network & Operations
d) Fast Information Network & Operations
e) None of the above

27. Why Kanishtha Dhankar recently was in news?
a) She is new Femina Miss India World 2011
b) She is new coach of Women’s Hockey team
c) She has won gold medal in Asian Games 2010
d) She has won Miss World 2011 crown
e) None of these

28. Goodluck Jonathan has been re-elected as President of _________.
a) Sudan
b) South Korea
c) Lebanon
d) Nigeria
e) Ghana

29. The Planning Commission has set GDP growth target for 12th Plan (2012-17) at _______.
a) 7.5 – 8.0 per cent
b) 8.0 – 8.5 per cent
c) 9 – 9.5 per cent
d) 9.5 – 10.0 per cent
e) None of the above

30. The International Convention for the Protection of All Persons from Enforced Disappearance, has been adopted by which of the following international agencies/organisation?
a) World Health Organisation (WHO)
b) International Maritime Organization
c) International Labour Organization
d) United Nations (UN)
e) International Atomic Energy Agency

31. The amount of liquid assets, such as cash, precious metals or other short-term securities, that a
financial institution or bank must maintain in its reserves is called
a) CRR
b) Bank Deposits
c) Fixed Assets
d) SLR
e) None of these

32. Before launching the new indices to measure food inflation, earlier it is measured on the basis of
a) Wholesale Price Index
b) Consumer Price Index
c) Nifty Index
c) BSE & NSE index
e) None of these

33. Which of the following space agencies has recently placed three satellites Resourcesat,
Youthsat, and X-SAT successfully in the Earth orbit?
a) NASA
b) ROSCOSMOS
c) CNSA
d) ISRO
e) None of these

34. K Balachander who recently won Dada Saheb Phalke Award for the year 2010 is a famous
a) Cinematographer
b) Director
c) Musician
d) Dancer
e) Writer

35. Which of the following countries has joined the BRIC group of nations to change it’s name as
BRICS?
a) Sudan
b) Singapore
b) South Korea
d) Srilanka
e) South Africa